MMLGS METAL RES (FMR)19 DEC 2021OME

📘 MMLGS First Class (Metal) – Dec 2021 (Q&A with Explanations)

Q1. Emergency plan is mentioned in Reg ………. of MMR, 1961
A. 190
B. 190A
C. 190B
D. 190C
E. None of the options
✅ Answer: B. 190A
📝 Explanation: Regulation 190A of Metalliferous Mines Regulations, 1961 makes it mandatory for every mine to prepare an emergency plan covering possible hazards like fire, inundation, explosions, and subsidence. The plan ensures quick action, evacuation routes, and coordination with local authorities in emergencies.

Q2. Means the failure to explode of an entire charge of explosives in a shot-hole.
A. Socket
B. Firing
C. Misfire
D. Stemming
E. None of the options
✅ Answer: C. Misfire
📝 Explanation: A misfire is the failure of a charge of explosives to explode after an attempt at blasting. It is dangerous as unblasted explosives remain in the hole, creating hazards for workers. It must be reported immediately, and special precautions are prescribed in MMR Reg. 167.

Q3. No working shall be made in any mine at any spot lying within a horizontal distance of ___ metres from either bank of a river/canal or reservoir, except with written permission of the Chief Inspector.
A. 10 m
B. 15 m
C. 30 m
D. 45 m
E. 60 m
✅ Answer: B. 15 m
📝 Explanation: As per CMR & MMR provisions, mine workings close to water bodies are prohibited within 15 m unless written permission is obtained from DGMS. This prevents inundation hazards due to sudden water inflow.

Q4. IME and PME come under Rule ………… of the Mines Rules, 1955
A. 29A
B. 29B
C. 29C
D. 29D
E. None of the options
✅ Answer: B. 29B
📝 Explanation: Rule 29B of Mines Rules, 1955 specifies provisions for Initial Medical Examination (IME) and Periodical Medical Examination (PME) for mine workers. IME ensures a worker is medically fit before employment, while PME ensures continued fitness, especially for dust and occupational diseases.

Q5. Which of the following earnings is not included in the “Ordinary rate of wages” of mine employees?
A. Basic Wages
B. Dearness Allowance
C. Bonus including incentive for production
D. Bonus excluding incentive for production
E. Compensation in cash
✅ Answer: D. Bonus excluding incentive for production
📝 Explanation: As per Payment of Wages Act & Mines Rules, ordinary rate of wages includes basic wages + DA + incentive bonuses, but does not include discretionary or irregular bonuses like festival bonuses or ex-gratia payments.

📘 MMLGS First Class (Metal) – Dec 2021 Q&A with Explanations (Set 2: Q6–Q25)

Q6. Parapet walls or berms along haul roads are provided:
A. To reduce width of the haul road
B. To increase width of the haul road
C. For alignment of haul road
D. To prevent vehicles getting off the road
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: Parapet walls/berms are safety features along haul roads in opencast mines. They prevent dumpers, trucks or loaders from falling off the edge and also serve as visual guides for drivers, reducing accidents.

Q7. At every opencast mine there shall be provided and maintained a first aid station in the scale of one for every persons employed.
A. 50
B. 80
C. 100
D. 120
E. 150
✅ Answer: A (50 persons)
📝 Explanation: As per Mines Rules, first-aid facilities are compulsory. For every 50 persons, one first aid station with stretchers, medicines, and trained personnel must be available to ensure immediate care in accidents.

Q8. No mine working shall be extended within a horizontal distance of from bank of river/canal/water sources.
A. 15 m
B. 20 m
C. 25 m
D. 30 m
E. 60 m
✅ Answer: A (15 m)
📝 Explanation: This restriction prevents the risk of inundation and flooding. Permission from DGMS is mandatory for working within this safety margin.

Q9. The number of maximum shot holes that can be fired in a shift by a competent person shall not exceed:
A. 100
B. 90
C. 80
D. 70
E. 60
✅ Answer: C (80)
📝 Explanation: To ensure safety in blasting, DGMS restricts the number of shot holes one blaster can fire in a shift. Beyond this, fatigue and supervision issues increase risks.

Q10. Peak particle velocity (PPV) is expressed in:
A. mm/sec
B. cm/sec
C. m/sec
D. n/sec
E. m/sec²
✅ Answer: A (mm/sec)
📝 Explanation: PPV is used to measure blast vibrations and their impact on structures. Indian Standards (DGMS guidelines) specify PPV limits for safe blasting near villages and structures.

Q11. Every air receiver forming part of a compressor shall be fitted with:
A. Ammeter
B. Voltmeter
C. Ohmmeter
D. Safety valve and pressure gauge
E. All of the above
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: As per Mines Rules, compressors must have safety valves & pressure gauges to prevent overpressure accidents. Electrical meters are not required here.

Q12. The accident which results in death of one or more persons is known as:
A. Fatal accident
B. Serious accident
C. Dangerous occurrence
D. Reportable accident
E. None
✅ Answer: A (Fatal accident)
📝 Explanation: Classification of accidents under Mines Act:

Fatal accident → death

Serious accident → fractures/major injury

Dangerous occurrence → incidents like fires, roof falls without casualties.

Q13. Reg. 167 of the MMR 1961 specifies about:
A. Misfire
B. Dust
C. Underground inundation
D. Fences
E. None
✅ Answer: A (Misfire)
📝 Explanation: Regulation 167 deals with misfire precautions—procedures for re-drilling, examination, and disposal of misfired holes.

Q14. No person shall enter any opencast working unless permitted by the:
A. Owner
B. Manager
C. Assistant Manager
D. Safety Officer
E. None
✅ Answer: B (Manager)
📝 Explanation: Only the Manager (statutory person-in-charge) has the authority to grant entry to mine workings. This ensures legal accountability and control.

Q15. What is specified under Reg. 190 of MMR, 1961?
A. Notice of accident
B. Place of accident
C. Fences
D. Notice
E. None
✅ Answer: B (Place of accident)
📝 Explanation: Regulation 190 deals with reporting and handling of accident places, ensuring they are preserved for inspection unless permission is granted to disturb them.

Q16. Main causes of accidents due to dumpers in opencast mines are:
A. Lack of awareness
B. Lack of training
C. Poor maintenance
D. Defective haul roads
E. All of the above
✅ Answer: E (All of the above)
📝 Explanation: Dumper accidents arise from multiple causes—driver error, inadequate training, poor maintenance, bad haul road design. DGMS emphasizes operator training and haul road standards.

Q17. Contractor shall submit returns to DGMS indicating firm details, workers, VT, IME/PME, etc. The return shall be submitted:
A. Quarterly
B. Bi-annually
C. Annually
D. Monthly
E. None
✅ Answer: A (Quarterly)
📝 Explanation: As per DGMS circular, contractors must submit quarterly returns for transparency regarding workers’ welfare, training, and medical compliance.

Q18. Which statute is not framed under the Mines Act, 1952?
A. Mines VT Rules, 1966
B. Mines Rescue Rules, 1985
C. Mines Creche Rules, 1966
D. Mineral Concession Rules, 1960
E. All of the above
✅ Answer: D (Mineral Concession Rules, 1960)
📝 Explanation: Mineral Concession Rules are framed under MMDR Act, 1957, not Mines Act. Other listed rules come under Mines Act.

Q19. Controlling is not a part of:
A. Operating function
B. R & D
C. Co-ordination
D. Option A & C
E. None
✅ Answer: B (R & D)
📝 Explanation: Management functions = Planning, Organizing, Directing, Controlling. R&D is a business activity, not a core management function.

Q20. As per DGMS Circular No. 8/1982, radius of danger zone in deep hole blasting is:
A. 100 m
B. 200 m
C. 250 m
D. 300 m
E. 500 m
✅ Answer: B (200 m)
📝 Explanation: DGMS mandates a 200 m safety zone around deep hole blasting to protect workers and nearby population from flyrock and vibration hazards.

Q21. The consistency of data obtained from a research method is called:
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Credibility
D. Causality
E. None
✅ Answer: A (Reliability)
📝 Explanation: In research:

Reliability → Consistency of results

Validity → Accuracy of results

Credibility → Believability

Q22. Purpose of earthing is to eliminate danger to persons due to:
A. Voltage
B. Electric shock
C. Open sparking
D. Fire
E. All of the above
✅ Answer: B (Electric shock)
📝 Explanation: Earthing provides a low resistance path to ground, preventing shock hazards and ensuring equipment safety.

Q23. Class Room Training on Gas Testing is provided as per _ of Mines VT Rules, 1966.
A. Schedule G
B. Schedule F
C. Schedule E
D. Schedule D
E. None
✅ Answer: B (Schedule F)
📝 Explanation: Schedule F of Mines VT Rules specifies training requirements for Gas Testing, mandatory for Sirdars, Overmen, and others.

Q24. Under Sec. 22 of Mines Act, an appeal against inspector’s order must be made within:
A. 7 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 20 days
E. None
✅ Answer: C (30 days)
📝 Explanation: Mines Act provides 30 days to appeal against an inspector’s notice/order to the Chief Inspector.

Q25. Tools in Risk Management include:
A. MOM of safety committee
B. Workmen inspector report
C. Safety Officer inspection report
D. ISO report
E. All of the above
✅ Answer: E (All of the above)
📝 Explanation: Risk management uses multiple tools like committee minutes, inspection reports, audits (ISO) to identify and mitigate hazards.

Q26. When change in the owner of a mine is a firm or other association of individuals, a change of any shareholder in a private company shall be intimated to DGMS within days.
A. 6 days
B. 8 days
C. 7 days
D. 9 days
E. 14 days
✅ Answer: C (7 days)
📝 Explanation: As per Mines Rules, any change in ownership/partners/shareholders must be intimated promptly to DGMS. The time limit is 7 days, ensuring transparency and accountability.

Q27. Rules and Regulations under the Mines Act can be made by:
A. Committee under Sec. 12 of Mines Act
B. Central Government
C. State Government
D. District Administration
E. All of the above
✅ Answer: B (Central Government)
📝 Explanation: Under Mines Act, 1952, the Central Government has the power to frame rules/regulations. Committees only advise, States implement.

Q28. Which type of bench failure is hardly found?
A. Circular
B. Topping
C. Plane
D. Wedge
E. Step
✅ Answer: D (Wedge)
📝 Explanation: Wedge failure requires specific joint orientation, so it is rare compared to circular or plane failures.

Q29. When a person returns to mine work after an absence exceeding one year, he shall undergo refresher training within:
A. First Schedule
B. Second Schedule
C. Fourth Schedule
D. Sixth Schedule
E. All of the above
✅ Answer: C (Fourth Schedule)
📝 Explanation: Refresher training (Fourth Schedule, VT Rules, 1966) ensures workers remain updated on safety after long absence (>1 year).

Q30. Standard of Initial Medical Examination (IME) is as per:
A. Form P
B. Form M
C. Form N
D. Form O
E. Form P-1
✅ Answer: B (Form M)
📝 Explanation: Form M of Mines Rules specifies IME standards covering vision, hearing, respiratory and general health checks before employment.

Q31. Workers’ participation in safety management includes:
A. Pit Safety Committee
B. Section 12 Committee
C. Tripartite Committee
D. All of the above
✅ Answer: D (A, B & C)
📝 Explanation: Workers participate in safety through pit safety committees, statutory committees under Sec. 12, and tripartite safety conferences.

Q32. Occupational disease notified under Sec. 25 of Mines Act after 10th National Safety Conference:
A. Asbestosis
B. Noise-induced hearing loss
C. Silicosis
D. Manganese poisoning
E. None
✅ Answer: B (Noise-induced hearing loss)
📝 Explanation: Noise-induced hearing loss was recognized as a notified disease under Mines Act to ensure compensation and preventive measures.

Q33. Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006 provides:
A. Guidelines, procedures & format for EC
B. … for CTO
C. … for Wildlife clearance
D. … for Forest clearance
E. None
✅ Answer: A (Environmental Clearance)
📝 Explanation: EIA 2006 mandates Environmental Clearance (EC) before starting large mining projects.

Q34. Provision of canteens is specified under Rule … of Mines Rules, 1955.
A. 62
B. 64
C. 65
D. 66
E. None
✅ Answer: B (Rule 64)
📝 Explanation: Rule 64 requires canteens for mines with 150+ workers, ensuring hygienic food supply.

Q35. Flexible cable for portable apparatus shall be covered with insulating material to protect from:
A. Accidental disconnection
B. Shock
C. Mechanical injury
D. Short-circuit
E. Transmission loss
✅ Answer: C (Mechanical injury)
📝 Explanation: Cables must be protected against mechanical damage (cuts, abrasions), which are the main hazards in mining equipment.

Q36. If complete leasehold boundary cannot be shown on one plan:
A. Prepare another plan with smaller scale
B. Prepare additional key plan showing boundaries & workings
C. Make same scale plan & paste together
D. Use Google map
E. None
✅ Answer: B (Key plan)
📝 Explanation: Survey regulations require key plans for proper reference when full area doesn’t fit on one sheet.

Q37. A surface plan should show every feature within lease boundary such as:
A. HT lines
B. Public roads
C. Public buildings
D. Fire-fighting equipment
E. A, B & C
✅ Answer: E
📝 Explanation: Mine surface plans must show powerlines, roads, buildings etc. for safety & DGMS records.

Q38. Snub pulley in a belt conveyor is used for:
A. Side discharging
B. Cleaning
C. Emergency stop
D. Increasing contact angle with driving drum
E. Increasing contact angle with driven drum
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: A snub pulley increases belt wrap on the driving pulley, improving traction.

Q39. Combination of likelihood of an event and its consequence is termed:
A. Injury
B. Risk
C. Hazard
D. Accident
E. Incident
✅ Answer: B (Risk)
📝 Explanation: Risk = Probability × Consequence. Hazard is source of harm, risk is quantifiable.

Q40. Permissible PPV at foundation of kutcha/brick houses (<8 Hz frequency):
A. 3 mm/sec
B. 5 mm/sec
C. 10 mm/sec
D. 12 mm/sec
E. 15 mm/sec
✅ Answer: B (5 mm/sec)
📝 Explanation: DGMS limits blast vibration at 5 mm/sec for kutcha/brick houses to avoid structural damage.

Q41. Slope failure of a waste dump does not depend on:
A. Permeability
B. Bulk density
C. Shear strength
D. Compressive strength
E. Porosity
✅ Answer: D (Compressive strength)
📝 Explanation: Dump stability depends on shear strength, density, permeability. Compressive strength is relevant for intact rock, not dumps.

Q42. The grade available after mining is:
A. Computed grade
B. Effective grade
C. Run-of-mine grade
D. Pithead grade
E. None
✅ Answer: B (Effective grade)
📝 Explanation: Effective grade is the grade of ore after dilution & losses during mining.

Q43. Which is not a mechanical property of rock?
A. Strength
B. Hardness
C. Elasticity
D. Density
E. Plasticity
✅ Answer: D (Density)
📝 Explanation: Mechanical properties are those under load: strength, elasticity, plasticity. Density is a physical property.

Q44. In a 3-phase AC motor, HP = (√3 × Volts × Amps × PF)/746.
Here Z = ?
A. √5
B. √2
C. √3
D. 2
E. 3
✅ Answer: C (√3)
📝 Explanation: For 3-phase systems, power = √3 × V × I × PF.

Q45. Full form of STP:
A. Sewage Treatment Plant
B. Sevages Treatment Plant
C. Sewerage Treatment Plant
D. All of the above
E. None
✅ Answer: A (Sewage Treatment Plant)
📝 Explanation: Correct terminology is Sewage Treatment Plant (STP), commonly used in mining colonies.

Q46. The dust sampling frequency is once in every months.
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Ten
E. Seven
✅ Answer: C (Six months)
📝 Explanation: As per DGMS guidelines, dust sampling must be conducted once every six months to monitor respirable dust levels and occupational disease risk (like silicosis).

Q47. External indicators for head and spine injuries are:
A. Blood/fluids in ear or nose
B. Unusual bumps or depressions on skull/spine
C. Seizures, headache, slurred speech
D. A & B
E. Either A or B
✅ Answer: D (A & B)
📝 Explanation: Signs like bleeding from ear/nose or abnormal bumps indicate head/spinal injury and require immediate immobilization.

Q48. Medical certificates should be maintained for:
A. 5 years from date of exam
B. As long as person is employed
C. Employment period + 10 years
D. Employment period + 5 years
E. No need to maintain
✅ Answer: C (Employment + 10 years)
📝 Explanation: Mines Rules mandate medical records be kept for the entire employment duration + 10 years after, for tracking occupational diseases.

Q49. Main emphasis of 9th Conference on Safety in Mines was on:
A. Safety Management Plan
B. Appropriate Health & Safety Management System
C. HEMM Safety
D. Worker participation
E. Emergency response
✅ Answer: B (Health & Safety Management System)
📝 Explanation: The 9th Conference stressed on developing systematic H&S management systems instead of reactive safety.

Q50. Section 26 of Mines Act empowers Central Govt. to:
A. Appoint competent person for notified diseases inquiry
B. Appoint for accident inquiry (5+ injured)
C. Appoint for group of mines report
D. Suggest modifications in rules
E. Develop safety systems
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: Section 26 → Govt may appoint an expert to inquire into cases of notified occupational diseases.

Q51. Which is false about Sec. 12 Committee decisions?
A. Decisions by majority vote
B. Chairman has casting vote in tie
C. Member cannot record dissent
✅ Answer: C (False)
📝 Explanation: Members can record dissent in committee decisions, ensuring transparency.

Q52. Safety features in dozers as per DGMS Tech. Circular 9 of 2008:
A. ROPS, turbo guard, fire resistant hoses, seat belt reminder
B. Canopy, turbo guard, fire resistant hoses, seat belt
C. ROPS, turbo guard, fire resistant hoses, emergency stop
D. ROPS, turbo guard, fire resistant hoses, seat belt
E. ROPS, turbo guard, fire extinguisher, seat belt
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: Roll Over Protective Structure (ROPS), fire resistant hoses, turbo charger guard, and seat belt are mandatory for dozers.

Q53. If a victim has serious internal bleeding suspected, first action:
A. Apply heat
B. Elevate area & call ambulance
C. Sit victim up
D. Give fluids
E. Press stomach
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Elevating area + immediate medical help is critical. Fluids/heat worsen condition.

Q54. “Chief Inspector” is:
A. Appointed under Mines Act, 1952
B. Appointed under Mines Rules, 1955
C. Appointed under MVTR, 1966
D. Appointed under Rescue Rules, 1985
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: Chief Inspector of Mines (DGMS head) is appointed under Mines Act, 1952.

Q55. Maximum voltage permitted in underground mines:
A. 3300 V
B. 440 V
C. 1100 V
D. 6600 V
E. 650 V
✅ Answer: C (1100 V)
📝 Explanation: For safety against fire/explosions in gassy mines, maximum supply voltage = 1100 V.

Q56. A person trained in handling explosives must repeat training if not employed in explosives work for more than:
A. 6 months
B. 5 months
C. 3 months
D. 1 year
E. 2 years
✅ Answer: A (6 months)
📝 Explanation: After a gap of >6 months, refresher training is compulsory before handling explosives again.

Q57. Wounds that require stitches:
A. Over 1 inch long
B. Artery bleeding/uncontrolled bleeding
C. Human/animal bites
D. All of the above
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: Large/deep wounds, uncontrolled bleeding, or bite injuries must be stitched to prevent infection/blood loss.

Q58. Severity Index = ?
A. (50F+S)×100000 / Man shifts
B. (50F+2S)×100000 / Man shifts
C. (50F+10S)×100000 / Man shifts
D. (30F+S)×100000 / Man shifts
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: DGMS accident statistics: Severity Index = (50×Fatal + Serious) ×100000 / Man-shifts worked.

Q59. Which is NOT a function of Personnel Management?
A. Training & development
B. Recruitment & selection
C. Wages & salary administration
D. Production planning & control
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: Production planning is an operational/management function, not personnel management.

Q60. Dust sampling in opencast workings covers which categories?
A. Drillers, excavator ops, dumper ops, dozer ops, crusher ops
B. Same + gardener
C. Same + canteen worker
D. Same + workshop helper
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: Only dust-exposed jobs like drilling, excavation, crushing, HEMM operation are included.

Q61. Where dumpers/HEMM cross overhead lines, minimum clearance of lowest conductor is:
A. ≤12 m
B. ≤15 m
C. ≥12 m
D. 3 m above largest tipper raised body
E. ≥9 m
✅ Answer: C (≥12 m)
📝 Explanation: DGMS standard: Minimum clearance = 12 m for safety of large dumpers.

Q62. Bench width calculation (given: bench height 7 m, boom reach 6 m, tipper width 2.5 m, EX-800 width 5.5 m).
A. 7 m
B. 6 m
C. 5.5 m
D. 15 m
E. 7.5 m
✅ Answer: D (15 m)
📝 Explanation: Minimum width = height + boom reach + equipment width + safety margin → approx. 15 m.

Q63. “Exploitation” or “Winning” in mining means:
A. Blasting
B. Extraction of ore/mineral from earth
C. Ventilation
D. Mapping of ore body
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Winning/Exploitation = Extraction of minerals.

Q64. Plotting error of plan at scale 1:2000 shall not exceed:
A. 25 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 75 cm
D. 90 cm
✅ Answer: B (50 cm)
📝 Explanation: Survey accuracy standards → at 1:2000 scale, max error = 50 cm.

Q65. Eligibility of Workmen’s Inspector (mining discipline):
(a) Foreman’s certificate under Act
(b) ≥5 years mining experience (2 in relevant mine)
(c) Orientation training as per syllabus approved by DGMS
✅ Answer: E (a + b + c)
📝 Explanation: All 3 are compulsory: statutory certificate, minimum experience, and approved training.

Q66. National Safety Conference (NSC) is an example of:
A. Safety Audit
B. Bipartite Committee
C. Tripartite Committee
D. Safety Management System
E. None
✅ Answer: C (Tripartite Committee)
📝 Explanation: NSC involves management, workers, and government representatives (three parties), hence a tripartite body for discussing safety improvements.

Q67. Sound level of Audio Visual Alarm (AVA) should be at least higher than ambient noise.
A. 5–20%
B. 10–15%
C. 20–25%
D. 5–10%
✅ Answer: D (5–10%)
📝 Explanation: Alarms in mines must be clearly audible. Standard → 5–10% louder than ambient noise for effective warning.

Q68. Flexible cables for portable/transportable apparatus shall be:
A. Single core
B. Two/multi-core even for welding
C. Two/multi-core unless for welding
D. Triple core
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: As per Electricity Rules, flexible cables must be 2-core or multi-core (except welding).

Q69. When there is doubt about safety valve weight:
A. Extra weight can be added
B. No extra weight shall be added
C. Safety valve to be set off
D. Safety valve to be removed
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Never add extra weights to safety valves; it may cause dangerous overpressure.

Q70. Regulations made without prior publication under Sec. 60 remain valid for:
A. Permanently
B. 1 year
C. Until danger is rectified
D. Until approved by Parliament
E. 2 years
✅ Answer: B (1 year)
📝 Explanation: Emergency regulations (without prior publication) stay valid for 1 year.

Q71. Which is NOT a symptom of panic disorder?
A. Nausea
B. Excessive perspiration
C. Urination
D. Chest pain
✅ Answer: C (Urination)
📝 Explanation: Panic disorder symptoms → nausea, sweating, chest pain. Urination is not typical.

Q72. In case of contravention, who besides the offender can be punished?
A. Those giving written denial
B. Those not present
C. Those proving due diligence
D. Supervisors, manager, agent, owner unless due diligence proven
✅ Answer: C (They must prove due diligence)
📝 Explanation: Managers/agents are statutorily responsible unless they prove they took all precautions.

Q73. Workmen’s Inspector nomination requires at least __ years’ mining experience.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 5
E. 3
✅ Answer: D (5 years)
📝 Explanation: Inspector must have 5 years’ experience (including 2 in relevant mine).

Q74. Minimum height of stoping rest/shelter at lowest point:
A. 1.25 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 2.0 m
D. 2.5 m
E. 1.8 m
✅ Answer: B (1.5 m)
📝 Explanation: For safe working & movement, rest shelters must be ≥1.5 m height.

Q75. When a dump exists near a road:
A. Distance ≥ 2 × dump height
B. Distance ≥ dump height
C. Fence sufficient
D. Depends on material
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Safety rule: distance between dump toe & road ≥ dump height.

Q76. Maximum Exposure Limit of respirable dust in manganese mines (8 hr TWA):
A. 5 mg/m³
B. 10 mg/m³
C. 3 mg/m³
D. 7 mg/m³
✅ Answer: A (5 mg/m³)
📝 Explanation: DGMS prescribed limit for manganese dust = 5 mg/m³.

Q77. Risk Assessment matrix levels:
A. Extreme–High–Moderate
B. Extreme–High–Moderate–Low
C. Extreme–High–Low
D. High–Medium–Low
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Risk assessment considers 4 levels → Extreme, High, Moderate, Low.

Q78. Appeal against Chief Inspector’s decision under Sec. 22A goes to:
A. Central Government directly
B. Referred to Committee
C. Legal advisers
✅ Answer: B (Committee)
📝 Explanation: Appeals go to Sec. 12 Committee, which advises Govt.

Q79. For a person joining mid-year in belowground mine, service counts if attendance ≥:
A. ¼ days
B. ⅓ days
C. ⅕ days
D. ½ days
✅ Answer: B (⅓)
📝 Explanation: At least 1/3rd attendance is required for that year to count as service.

Q80. If owner appeals against notice under Sec. 22A:
A. Wait for CI reply
B. Comply immediately (no waiting)
C. Govt decides
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Appeal does not stay compliance; owner must comply immediately.

Q81. Who is responsible for maintenance of bathing & locker rooms at mine pithead?
A. Agent + Manager
B. Manager + Owner
C. Agent + Owner
✅ Answer: A (Agent & Manager)
📝 Explanation: Responsibility is on Agent & Manager, both statutory officers.

Q82. Reportable injury means absence from work for:
A. >24 hrs
B. >36 hrs
C. >72 hrs
D. >1 week
E. >48 hrs
✅ Answer: C (>72 hrs)
📝 Explanation: Mines Act defines reportable accident = enforced absence >72 hrs.

Q83. For snakebite victim, what should NOT be done?
A. Wash wound
B. Apply ice
C. Keep bitten part still & below heart
D. Get medical care in 30 min
✅ Answer: B (Do not apply ice)
📝 Explanation: Ice worsens tissue damage; main step = immobilize + hospital quickly.

Q84. Risk Management is defined as:
A. Identifying/monitoring/managing risks to minimize negative impact
B. …maximize positive impact
C. …identify only
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: Standard definition → systematic identification, monitoring, and management to reduce negative impacts.

Q85. Under Mines Act, District Magistrate has inspector powers, but:
A. Cannot enter mine
B. Cannot use Sec. 22, 22A, 61 powers
C. Cannot use Sec. 9 powers
D. B & C
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: DM may act as inspector but cannot exercise Sec. 22/22A (safety notices) or Sec. 9 (returns/records) powers.

Q86. A person appointed to hold Court of Inquiry under Sec. 24 of Mines Act, 1952 has powers of a Civil Court for:
(a) Enforcing attendance of witnesses
(b) Compelling production of documents
(c) Compelling production of material objects
A. (a) & (b)
B. (b) & (c)
C. (a) & (c)
D. (a), (b) & (c)
E. (a) or (b) or (c) only
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: Court of Inquiry has full powers of a Civil Court under CPC 1908 for witness attendance, documents, and material objects.

Q87. Composition of safety committee of a mine includes manager, safety officer, workmen inspector and:
A. 5 workmen nominated by workers + 5 officials by manager
B. 4 workmen + 6 officials
C. 6 workmen + 4 officials
D. 5 officials + 5 officials
E. 5 workmen + 5 workmen
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: As per Mines Rules, safety committee = Manager, Safety Officer, Workmen Inspector + 5 workmen & 5 officials.

Q88. No person shall act as Welfare Officer of a mine unless he possesses:
A. University degree
B. Degree/diploma in social science
C. Knowledge of local language
D. A & B
E. A, B & C
✅ Answer: E
📝 Explanation: Welfare Officer must have degree, diploma in social science, and knowledge of local language for worker communication.

Q89. Accident site can be disturbed:
A. With consent of Chief Inspector
B. With consent of Inspector
C. If inspector fails to inspect within 72 hrs
D. With consent of owner/manager
E. A or B or C
✅ Answer: E
📝 Explanation: Accident site must be preserved unless consent from Chief Inspector, Inspector, or after 72 hrs delay.

Q90. Which is NOT a definition of Quality?
A. Conformance to specification
B. Fitness for use
C. Spare part maintenance
D. Customer delight
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: Quality definitions = specification, use fitness, delight. Spare part maintenance is not quality definition.

Q91. Increased safety type "e" means:
A. Additional measures for preventing arcs/sparks/overheating
B. Sparks are inevitable, extra security needed
C. Complete prevention of sparks
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: "Type e" apparatus = increased safety by design to avoid arcs/sparks & overheating in hazardous areas.

Q92. Information to DGMS about appointment/removal of Welfare Officer must be given within:
A. 15 days
B. 7 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
E. 10 days
✅ Answer: B (7 days)
📝 Explanation: Mines Rules mandate notification to DGMS within 7 days.

Q93. Who shall carry first-aid outfit under Rule 45, Mines Rules 1955?
(a) Foreman
(b) Male
(c) Blaster
(d) Electrician
(e) Mechanic
A. (a) & (b)
B. (a), (b), (c)
C. (a), (b), (c), (d)
D. (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
E. (a), (b), (c), (e)
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: All supervisory/technical staff in mines must carry first-aid outfits.

Q94. When owner of a mine is a firm/association, Form I must be submitted in case of change of:
A. Partner in firm / member in association
B. Director in public company
C. Shareholder in private company
D. All of the above
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: DGMS must be informed in all ownership changes: partners, directors, or shareholders.

Q95. Which is NOT true about mine plans?
A. Show mine name & owner
B. Show true north/magnetic meridian & date
C. Show scale ≥ 25 cm
D. All the above
✅ Answer: E (None)
📝 Explanation: All conditions are correct requirements for mine plans.

Q96. If a plan is part of a main plan, tracing must:
A. Be attached with copy & certified
B. Bear reference to original & be certified
C. Show key plan
D. Maintain bound note book
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Copies/tracings must have reference to original plan & be certified by surveyor.

Q97. First aid for victim with object impaled in hand:
A. Remove object & wash
B. Immobilize with dressings around it
C. Break object & bandage
D. Any of the above
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Never remove embedded object → immobilize & transport to hospital.

Q98. Which is NOT a symptom of heart attack?
A. Chest pain
B. Red, hot, dry skin
C. Pale/bluish skin
D. Sweating
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Heart attack causes chest pain, sweating, pale skin. Red hot dry skin is heat stroke, not heart attack.

Q99. If trade unions demand, Chief Inspector’s Form 6 entries:
A. Can be read to them
B. Must be made available
C. Already displayed, no need
D. Explain in meeting
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Records must be shared with unions on demand.

Q100. RE represents:
A. Risk expense
B. Related expense
C. Risk exposure
D. Risk evaluation
✅ Answer: C (Risk Exposure)
📝 Explanation: In risk management, RE = Risk Exposure = probability × impact.

Q101. Regarding ground vibrations:
A. Lower frequency → higher displacement
B. Higher frequency → higher displacement
C. Frequency & displacement proportional
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: Low frequency blasts cause greater ground displacement, more dangerous to structures.

Q102. True about workmen inspector appointments:
(a) 3 inspectors if >500 employed
(b) Appointed in consultation with union
(c) Additional inspector for each 1000 beyond 1500
A. (a) & (b)
B. (b) & (c)
C. (a) & (c)
D. (a), (b) & (c)
✅ Answer: E (all correct)
📝 Explanation: Mines Act requires workmen inspectors based on strength and in consultation with unions.

Q103. 300 m danger zone rule may be relaxed if fragments won’t project beyond:
A. 50 m
B. 150 m
C. 100 m
D. 200 m
✅ Answer: E (10 m)
📝 Explanation: DGMS may relax rule if certified safe (flyrock <10 m).

Q104. Who act as Chairman & Secretary of Safety Committee?
A. Owner & Manager
B. Safety officer & Inspector
C. Manager & Safety Officer
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: Manager = Chairman, Safety Officer = Secretary.

Q105. Under Mines Act, Inspector may issue notice for defects under:
(a) 22A(1)
(b) 22(1)
(c) 22(3)
(d) 22A(2)
A. (a) & (c)
B. (b) & (c)
C. (a) & (d)
D. (a), (b) & (c)
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: Inspector can issue notices under Sec. 22 & 22A provisions.

📘 MMLGS First Class (Metal) – Dec 2021

Q106. The 10th Conference on Safety in Mines recommended:
A. Establishing Safety Management System in all mines
B. Stopping contract labour in mines
C. Reducing blasting in opencast mines
D. Limiting working hours to 6 hours
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: The 10th Conference emphasized implementation of Safety Management Systems (SMS) across mines for systematic hazard control.

Q107. Roof bolts are mainly used in:
A. Metal stopes
B. Longwall panels
C. Bord & Pillar workings
D. Open cast benches
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: Roof bolting is the main support system in Bord & Pillar method, improving strata stability and reducing timber use.

Q108. The Mines Act, 1952 was enacted primarily to:
A. Regulate working conditions and safety of mine workers
B. Control production of coal & ore
C. Nationalize mines
D. Regulate mineral exports
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: The Act governs health, safety, working hours, employment, and welfare of mine workers.

Q109. The statutory position responsible for the overall management, control, supervision, and direction of the mine:
A. Assistant Manager
B. Agent
C. Manager
D. Safety Officer
✅ Answer: C (Manager)
📝 Explanation: The Manager is the statutory in-charge responsible under the Mines Act and is answerable for all operations.

Q110. The survey plan of an underground mine must be updated at least once in:
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 3 months
D. 2 years
✅ Answer: A (6 months)
📝 Explanation: Survey plans (underground & opencast) must be updated every 6 months to reflect accurate workings.

Q111. The first National Safety Conference on Mines was held in:
A. 1958
B. 1965
C. 1971
D. 1981
✅ Answer: A (1958)
📝 Explanation: The 1st Conference was held in 1958, laying the foundation for systematic safety discussions in Indian mines.

Q112. The function of a “scrubber” in blasting is:
A. To control dust
B. To suppress fumes and gases
C. To reduce noise
D. To increase explosive power
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Scrubbers are used to absorb noxious gases/fumes generated during blasting.

Q113. Who is responsible for providing adequate ventilation in belowground mines?
A. Mine Foreman
B. Assistant Manager
C. Ventilation Officer
D. Manager
✅ Answer: D (Manager)
📝 Explanation: The Manager holds overall responsibility, though practical duties may be delegated to Ventilation Officer.

Q114. A refuge chamber in underground mines is meant for:
A. Blasting
B. Resting of workers
C. Emergency shelter
D. Storage of explosives
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: Refuge chambers are safe shelters for workers during fires, explosions, or gas leakage emergencies.

Q115. DGMS Technical Circulars are issued for:
A. Giving legal punishments
B. Guiding best practices & technical safety standards
C. Preparing budgets
D. Submitting mine returns
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: DGMS circulars provide practical guidelines to implement statutory requirements and improve safety.

Q116. Danger zone for secondary blasting (toe blasting) in opencast mines:
A. 25 m
B. 50 m
C. 100 m
D. 200 m
✅ Answer: B (50 m)
📝 Explanation: For secondary blasting, the danger zone = 50 m, much smaller than deep-hole blasting.

Q117. Gas testing is mandatory before allowing work in:
A. Surface mines
B. Gassy underground mines
C. All metal mines
D. Opencast coal benches
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Gas testing is compulsory in gassy coal mines to detect methane and ensure safe atmosphere.

Q118. Mines Rescue Rules, 1985 were framed under:
A. Mines Act, 1952
B. CMR, 1957
C. MMDR Act, 1957
D. MMR, 1961
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: Rescue Rules are subordinate legislation under Mines Act, 1952.

Q119. The main objective of dust sampling in mines:
A. To measure air quality only
B. To determine ventilation efficiency
C. To assess risk of occupational disease
D. To comply with legal formalities
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: Dust sampling is done to evaluate health risks (silicosis, pneumoconiosis, etc.) for workers.

Q120. “Shot firing” in metalliferous mines must be carried out by:
A. Any miner
B. Foreman
C. Blaster holding a valid certificate
D. Manager
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: Only certified blasters can handle and fire explosives as per MMR & Explosives Act.

Q121. Which is a “notified disease” under the Mines Act?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Silicosis
C. Asthma
D. Pneumonia
✅ Answer: B (Silicosis)
📝 Explanation: Silicosis is a notified disease due to quartz dust exposure in metalliferous mines.

Q122. What is the main function of a workmen inspector?
A. Production monitoring
B. Reporting on safety and health conditions
C. Supervising workers
D. Checking wages
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Workmen inspectors inspect workplaces and report unsafe conditions to DGMS and management.

Q123. Frequency of PME (Periodical Medical Examination) for mine workers:
A. Every 2 years
B. Every 3 years
C. Every 5 years
D. Every year
✅ Answer: B (3 years)
📝 Explanation: Mines Rules require PME once every 3 years for workers.

Q124. Who maintains registers of accidents and dangerous occurrences?
A. Safety Officer
B. Mine Clerk
C. Manager
D. Welfare Officer
✅ Answer: C (Manager)
📝 Explanation: The Manager is responsible for keeping accident registers as per Mines Act.

Q125. “Bench slope” in opencast mining is governed by:
A. Rock mechanics (properties of strata)
B. Mine owner’s decision
C. Manager’s convenience
D. Blasting method
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: Bench slope depends on rock properties (cohesion, angle of repose, joints), studied in rock mechanics.

Q126. Who is responsible for the proper training of persons employed in a mine?
A. Safety Officer
B. Agent
C. Manager
D. Welfare Officer
✅ Answer: C (Manager)
📝 Explanation: As per Mines Vocational Training Rules (MVTR), 1966, the Manager is responsible for ensuring all persons receive prescribed training before and during employment.

Q127. Maximum gradient of a permanent haul road in opencast mines:
A. 1 in 12
B. 1 in 16
C. 1 in 20
D. 1 in 10
✅ Answer: B (1 in 16)
📝 Explanation: DGMS standards specify a maximum gradient of 1:16 for permanent haul roads to allow safe dumper movement.

Q128. Standing orders under the Mines Act relate to:
A. Wage fixation
B. Employment conditions
C. Workers’ conduct and discipline
D. Welfare facilities
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: Standing orders define conduct, discipline, and working conditions of mine workers, approved by DGMS.

Q129. Gas testing certificate is valid for:
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 3 years
D. Lifetime
✅ Answer: D (Lifetime)
📝 Explanation: Once obtained, a Gas Testing Certificate remains valid for life, unless revoked by DGMS.

Q130. Mines Creche Rules, 1966 are applicable to mines employing:
A. 20 or more women workers
B. 25 or more women workers
C. 50 or more women workers
D. 30 or more women workers
✅ Answer: A (20 or more)
📝 Explanation: Every mine with 20+ women workers must provide a creche for their children.

Q131. Who is responsible for reporting accidents to DGMS?
A. Owner
B. Agent
C. Manager
D. Safety Officer
✅ Answer: C (Manager)
📝 Explanation: The Manager has statutory duty to report all accidents and dangerous occurrences within 24 hours.

Q132. The maximum working hours belowground per day under Mines Act:
A. 8 hours
B. 7 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 9 hours
✅ Answer: B (7 hours)
📝 Explanation: Mines Act, Sec. 28 → belowground work = max 7 hours/day due to higher physical strain and risks.

Q133. Which explosive is NOT permitted in underground coal mines?
A. Permitted explosives
B. Slurry explosives
C. Ammonium nitrate fuel oil (ANFO)
D. Water gel explosives
✅ Answer: C (ANFO)
📝 Explanation: ANFO is not permitted in underground gassy coal mines as it is unsafe in methane environments.

Q134. The “angle of repose” of a material refers to:
A. Natural slope at which loose material remains stable
B. Maximum slope for blasting
C. Dip of strata
D. Roof slope in stopes
✅ Answer: A
📝 Explanation: Angle of repose = maximum slope at which loose material is stable without sliding.

Q135. If an accident results in death, it must be reported to DGMS within:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. Immediately
✅ Answer: B (24 hours)
📝 Explanation: Mines Act requires fatal accidents to be reported within 24 hours to DGMS and local authorities.

Q136. Which rule governs vocational training for mine workers?
A. Mines Rules, 1955
B. Mines VT Rules, 1966
C. Mines Creche Rules, 1966
D. Mines Rescue Rules, 1985
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: The Mines Vocational Training Rules, 1966 (MVTR) cover training for new, refresher, and special categories.

Q137. A “dangerous occurrence” is one that:
A. Causes serious injury
B. Does not cause injury but has potential for accident
C. Causes minor injuries only
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: Dangerous occurrence = non-injury event (fire, inundation, machinery failure) with accident potential.

Q138. Mines Rules, 1955 provide for appointment of Safety Officers in mines employing:
A. 500+ persons
B. 250+ persons
C. 150+ persons
D. 1000+ persons
✅ Answer: B (250+)
📝 Explanation: Rule 29C → Safety Officers must be appointed where 250+ persons are employed.

Q139. The statutory age for employment in mines is:
A. 14 years
B. 15 years
C. 16 years
D. 18 years
✅ Answer: D (18 years)
📝 Explanation: No person below 18 years may work in any mine (Sec. 40, Mines Act).

Q140. Who is responsible for preparing the Emergency Plan of a mine?
A. DGMS
B. Mine Safety Officer
C. Manager
D. Local administration
✅ Answer: C (Manager)
📝 Explanation: Reg. 190A of MMR, 1961 → Manager must prepare an Emergency Plan covering fire, inundation, etc.

Q141. Permissible noise exposure limit in Indian mines for 8 hours:
A. 85 dB(A)
B. 90 dB(A)
C. 95 dB(A)
D. 100 dB(A)
✅ Answer: A (85 dB(A))
📝 Explanation: DGMS & DGFASLI recommend 85 dB(A) as the safe 8-hour TWA limit.

Q142. “Form B” under MVTR, 1966 relates to:
A. List of trained persons
B. Training report to DGMS
C. Attendance register
D. Identity card of trained persons
✅ Answer: D
📝 Explanation: Form B = Identity card issued to trained mine workers.

Q143. The minimum freeboard for tailing dams in metalliferous mines:
A. 0.5 m
B. 1.0 m
C. 1.5 m
D. 2.0 m
✅ Answer: B (1.0 m)
📝 Explanation: DGMS standard = 1.0 m minimum freeboard to prevent overtopping.

Q144. Mine plans and sections must be preserved for at least:
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 12 years
D. 15 years
✅ Answer: D (15 years)
📝 Explanation: As per Coal/Metalliferous Mines Regulations → plans/sections preserved 15 years after mine closure.

Q145. First aid appliances must be provided at every mine in accordance with:
A. Mines Act, 1952
B. Mines Rules, 1955
C. Mines Rescue Rules, 1985
D. Factories Act, 1948
✅ Answer: B (Mines Rules, 1955)
📝 Explanation: Rules 44–47 of Mines Rules, 1955 specify first-aid requirements in mines.

Excellent 🙌 Let’s wrap it up with the last set (Q146–Q150) from your MMLGS First Class Metal 2021 exam. After this, your entire 150-question bank with answers + explanations will be complete ✅.

📘 MMLGS First Class (Metal) – Dec 2021 Q&A with Explanations (Set 9: Q146–Q150)

Q146. The strength of a winding rope is tested at least once in:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
✅ Answer: C (12 months)
📝 Explanation: As per regulations, winding ropes must be tested every 12 months to ensure safety in shaft winding operations.

Q147. DGMS stands for:
A. Directorate General of Mines Standards
B. Directorate General of Mines Safety
C. Directorate General of Mineral Studies
D. Directorate General of Mine Survey
✅ Answer: B
📝 Explanation: DGMS = Directorate General of Mines Safety, the regulatory body under Ministry of Labour & Employment, Govt. of India.

Q148. What is the main purpose of fencing around opencast workings?
A. Beautification
B. To prevent cattle entry only
C. To prevent inadvertent entry of persons and animals
D. To demarcate lease boundary
✅ Answer: C
📝 Explanation: Fencing ensures no unauthorized or accidental entry of people and animals into dangerous pits.

Q149. Who approves the mine safety training syllabus under MVTR, 1966?
A. Mine Manager
B. DGMS
C. Mine Safety Officer
D. Ministry of Mines
✅ Answer: B (DGMS)
📝 Explanation: DGMS approves training syllabi under MVTR, ensuring uniform safety standards across India.

Q150. Which factor does NOT affect slope stability in opencast mines?
A. Rainfall
B. Geological discontinuities
C. Excavation method
D. Color of the rock
✅ Answer: D (Color of the rock)
📝 Explanation: Slope stability depends on rainfall, strata conditions, joints, blasting method, excavation geometry—but color has no effect.

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